A15 MLS 037- PMLS 1 P2 LONG QUIZ RATIONALIZATION
PMLS 1 Power Review! Sharpen your skills for the P2 exam! This quiz pulls questions from the previous long quiz and gives you instant rationalizations—so you’ll know exactly why each answer is right (or wrong). Learn, recall, and conquer!
Question 1
Which of the following tests is commonly performed in a primary category laboratory?
Bone marrow studies
Routine urinalysis
Blood donation program
Tumor marker analysis
Question 2
What is the primary role of a clinical laboratory?
To treat diseases
To manufacture drugs
To analyze patient specimens
To perform surgeries
Question 3
Which section performs complete blood count (CBC)?
Histopathology
Clinical Chemistry
Hematology
Cytology
Question 4
Which category requires a minimum of 60 sqm lab space?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Free-standing
Question 5
Which is NOT a characteristic of a clinical pathology lab?
Urinalysis
Autopsy
Toxicology
Clinical Chemistry
Question 6
Who plays a vital role in ensuring test result reliability?
Radiologist
Medical Technologist
Pharmacist
Pathologist
Question 7
What type of clinical lab operates within a hospital?
Institution-based
Free-standing
Private
National Reference
Question 8
Which law governs the operation of clinical laboratories in the Philippines?
RA 5527
RA 4688
RA 10918
RA 9165
Question 9
Which is required in a secondary category laboratory?
Centrifuge
KOH mount
Automated Chemistry Analyzer
Serofuge
Question 10
What equipment is unique to tertiary laboratories?
Microscope
Oven
Automated Chemistry Analyzer
Incubator
Question 11
What does AO 59 s. 2001 pertain to?
Hospital construction
Clinical laboratory standards
Pharmaceutical regulations
Blood donation drives
Question 12
Which clinical lab is designated to provide confirmatory testing?
Primary
Tertiary
NRL (National Reference Laboratory)
Secondary
Question 13
Which section studies cell changes and abnormalities?
Cytology
Serology
Microbiology
Chemistry
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT part of a secondary category test?
Routine blood glucose
NS1 antigen test
Blood urea nitrogen
KOH mount
Question 15
What lab section analyzes blood for pathogens like bacteria?
Histopathology
Microbiology
Hematology
Cytology
Question 16
Who enforces RA 4688?
DOH
CHED
PRC
FDA
Question 17
A tertiary laboratory faces delays due to poor communication with the pathology section. What is the likely impact?
Faster result release
Improved test accuracy
Reduced efficiency
Increased staff morale
Question 18
A hospital lab performs NS1-Ag tests, Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM), and crossmatching. What category does it belong to?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
NRL
Question 19
If a clinical laboratory lacks a biosafety cabinet Class II, which test might be compromised?
Blood glucose
Bacterial culture
Urinalysis
Hemoglobin count
Question 20
A patient needs both histopathology and cytology tests. Which laboratory section is most appropriate?
Clinical Pathology
Anatomic Pathology
Hematology
Serology
Question 21
How does collaboration between microbiology and clinical chemistry sections affect diagnosis?
Delays the diagnosis
Confuses the physicians
Supports a more accurate diagnosis
Increases cost
Question 22
If a lab performs only routine urinalysis and fecalysis but adds NS1 antigen testing, what action is necessary?
Register as primary lab
Maintain current license
Upgrade to tertiary
Shut down operations
Question 23
How does RA 4688 promote patient safety?
By requiring free healthcare
By standardizing lab operations
By reducing test costs
By employing doctors
Question 24
A lab section uses semi-automated chemistry analyzers and performs crossmatching. What lab category fits best?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
NRL
Question 25
Why is standardized training in NRLs important for med techs?
It lowers their salary
It ensures uniform quality of complex procedures
It teaches surgery
It reduces paperwork
Question 26
Which term refers to the containment principles to prevent accidental exposure to infectious agents?
Biosecurity
Pathogenicity
Biosafety
Risk Management
Question 27
Biosecurity primarily focuses on:
Decontamination protocols
Preventing accidental infection
Protecting against loss, theft, or misuse
Providing vaccines
Question 28
Which microorganism is classified under Risk Group 1?
Salmonella
Naegleria gruberi
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
HIV
Question 29
What characterizes Risk Group 4 agents?
Mild infections with treatment
No known disease association
Treatable diseases
Life-threatening diseases with no treatment
Question 30
Which pathogen needs BSL-4 containment?
Bacillus subtilis
Salmonella
Ebola virus
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Question 31
A Class III biosafety cabinet is:
Open front
Horizontal airflow
Gas-tight enclosed with gloves
Unfiltered
Question 32
Which biosafety level is best suited for teaching labs?
BSL-4
BSL-3
BSL-2
BSL-1
Question 33
Which PPE combination meets OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standard?
Hairnet only
Apron only
Face shield, gloves, and gown
None
Question 34
BSL-3 labs are primarily designed to control pathogens spread through:
Water
Food
Aerosols
Feces
Question 35
Risk Group 2 agents are best described as:
Lethal with no cure
Harmless
Moderate risk but treatable
Always fatal
Question 36
Which cabinet is used for BSL-2 work and offers dual protection?
Class I
Class II Type A2
Class III
None
Question 37
What defines a BSL-2 laboratory?
For BSL-4 agents
No safety required
Limited access and immunizations
Used only in veterinary settings
Question 38
Who enforces the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard?
WHO
CDC
DOH
OSHA
Question 39
Which cabinet uses negative pressure and filters only the exhaust air?
Class I
Class II
Class III
None
Question 40
What is the last step after doffing PPE?
Remove gloves last
Discard mask in open bin
Perform hand hygiene
Touch mask directly
Question 41
Which is NOT a part of biosafety practices?
Facility design
Arrest procedures
Waste management
Access control
Question 42
What airflow does Class II BSC use?
Horizontal
No airflow
Vertical laminar
Negative pressure only
Question 43
A student drops a test tube of Salmonella. What should they do first?
Leave immediately
Call security
Activate spill protocol and inform supervisor
Mop it up quietly
Question 44
Mycobacterium tuberculosis should be handled with:
Open bench space
BSL-1 setup
HEPA filtration and negative airflow
Class I BSC only
Question 45
A novel virus causes lethal infection and spreads via aerosols. Which classification applies?
Risk 1, BSL-1
Risk 2, BSL-2
Risk 3, BSL-3
Risk 4, BSL-4
Question 46
If PPE use is inconsistent in a lab, what standard is being violated?
WHO policy
CDC lab guide
OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
FDA rule
Question 47
Brucella spp. should be handled using:
None—it's harmless
Basic gloves
Class II BSC and full PPE
Fume hood
Question 48
Which of the following enhances both biosafety and biosecurity?
Locked drawers
Personnel training in containment and security
Incinerating all trash
Publishing lab layouts online
Question 49
A tech splashes blood on their hand. First response?
Dry off
Alert the media
Wash with soap and water immediately
Put on gloves
Question 50
A researcher works with Marburg virus. What facility is required?
Teaching lab
BSL-2 with fume hood
BSL-4 lab with Class III cabinet or suit
BSL-1 with gloves
Question 51
What does the "A" in the AMP model of Biorisk Management stand for?
Analysis
Arrangement
Assessment
Allocation
Question 52
Which of the following best describes “biorisk”?
Chemical exposure in laboratories
Radiation risk from equipment
Risk related to biological agents and toxins
Human error in documentation
Question 53
Which model is used to represent the core of Biorisk Management?
SWOT Model
PEAR Model
AMP Model
BSL Model
Question 54
Which mitigation strategy involves replacing a hazardous agent with a safer one?
Elimination
Substitution
Administrative Control
PPE
Question 55
Which of the following is least effective as a risk control measure?
Engineering Control
Administrative Control
Substitution
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
Question 56
The removal of the hazard entirely from the workplace is called:
Engineering Control
Substitution
Elimination
Documentation
Question 57
Which step follows hazard identification in the risk assessment process?
Risk elimination
Characterization of risks
Training staff
Substitution
Question 58
Engineering controls focus on:
Written protocols
Facility or equipment design
Behavior of staff
Training
Question 59
What is the goal of performance evaluation in the AMP model?
To add new SOPs
To fire incompetent staff
To assess if mitigation measures are working
To eliminate all hazards
Question 60
Which of the following is an administrative control?
Air filters
Face masks
SOPs (Standard Operating Procedures) and training
Biological cabinets
Question 61
In biorisk management, risk is best defined as:
A hazard with a label
The confirmed presence of a toxin
The likelihood that a hazard will cause harm
A mistake by lab personnel
Question 62
A gas leak in the lab is an example of a:
Risk
Hazard
Control
Substitution
Question 63
The term "unintentional exposure" refers to:
Infecting on purpose
Accidental contact with biohazards
Loss of equipment
Use of expired reagents
Question 64
Which is an example of substitution?
Wearing gloves
Using Bacillus thuringiensis instead of Bacillus anthracis
Installing HEPA filters
Implementing a training module
Question 65
Which component of the AMP model is concerned with continuous improvement?
Assessment
Mitigation
Performance Evaluation
Surveillance
Question 66
What is the primary purpose of a biosafety cabinet?
To store chemicals
To prevent aerosol exposure
To control lighting
To isolate waste bins
Question 67
Which mitigation method includes displaying biohazard signs?
PPE
Substitution
Engineering Control
Administrative Control
Question 68
In the AMP model, missing one component can lead to:
Improved safety
Time efficiency
System failure
Cost reduction
Question 69
During serological testing for HBV (Hepatitis B virus), what risk mitigation is most effective if elimination is not possible?
Ignoring the hazard
Wearing perfume
Using PPE and proper SOPs
Shutting down the lab
Question 70
Which of the following shows a proper performance evaluation method?
Discarding all old SOPs
Checking if implemented mitigation reduced risks
Hiring new interns
Replacing all PPE monthly
Question 71
In a lab scenario where sharp objects are often mishandled, what is the best engineering control?
Display warning signs
Use needle disposal boxes
Conduct a team meeting
Provide free lunch
Question 72
In a poorly ventilated lab, what's the most appropriate action?
Wear brighter clothing
Install an airflow ventilation system
Replace floor tiles
Use ethanol frequently
Question 73
If performance evaluation reveals a risk is still unaddressed, what should be done?
Ignore it
Update mitigation strategies
Change the lab’s name
Replace all staff
Question 74
What combination of control strategies is best for handling Salmonella spp. without a biosafety cabinet?
Use open table + gloves
Just close the door
Implement substitution, PPE, and administrative controls
Avoid using pipettes
Question 75
A group must develop a mitigation plan for transporting sputum samples. Which is most appropriate?
Wear perfume
Use glass bottles
Double containment and transport SOPs
Label everything “toxic”
Question 76
Which category of healthcare waste includes used needles and broken glassware?
Pathological Waste
Sharps
Pharmaceutical Waste
Chemical Waste
Question 77
Which type of waste includes leftover food from non-infectious patients?
Pharmaceutical Waste
Radioactive Waste
Biodegradable Waste
Anatomical Waste
Question 78
Waste such as laboratory reagents and disinfectants is classified as:
Sharps
Chemical Waste
Pathological Waste
Radioactive Waste
Question 79
Expired drugs and vaccines fall under which category?
Sharps
Pathological Waste
Pharmaceutical Waste
General Waste
Question 80
What is anatomical waste?
Unused medical supplies
Recognizable body parts from procedures
Expired food
Plastic bottles
Question 81
What category does a PET plastic bottle belong to?
Non-biodegradable
Infectious waste
Recyclable waste
Chemical waste
Question 82
What type of waste is produced from radiotherapeutic procedures?
Radioactive Waste
Pharmaceutical Waste
Sharps Waste
Chemical Waste
Question 83
Which category includes swabs, bandages, and dressings from infectious patients?
Sharps
Non-hazardous
Infectious Waste
Anatomical Waste
Question 84
General waste that can neither be recycled nor decomposed is:
Chemical
Non-recyclable/non-biodegradable
Recyclable
Infectious
Question 85
Healthcare waste that causes injury and infection is classified as:
Radioactive
Sharps
Biodegradable
Pharmaceutical
Question 86
The most dangerous healthcare waste category is:
Chemical
Infectious
Sharps
General Waste
Question 87
Waste containing antibiotics and cytotoxic drugs belongs to:
Radioactive
Pharmaceutical Waste
Infectious
Pathological
Question 88
What color is typically used for infectious waste bins in color coding?
Yellow
Blue
Green
Red
Question 89
Which is NOT a characteristic of hazardous chemical waste?
Toxic
Flammable
Biodegradable
Corrosive
Question 90
Proper segregation of waste starts with:
Final disposal
Color-coded bins
Laboratory test
Waste incineration
Question 91
A staff member disposes of used needles in a general bin. What is the most immediate concern?
Bad odor
Sharp injury and infection transmission
Slower collection time
Waste overflow
Question 92
A laboratory produces chemical waste from reagents. What should be done?
Flush them in the sink
Store in labeled containers and follow disposal protocol
Mix with sharps waste
Incinerate it
Question 93
Why is proper waste disposal relevant to public health?
It reduces lab costs
It promotes recycling
It prevents disease outbreaks and environmental contamination
It avoids paperwork
Question 94
If autoclaving is chosen as a treatment method, what type of waste is being processed?
Radioactive
Infectious Waste
Anatomical Waste
Sharps Waste
Question 95
A hospital wants to switch to more eco-friendly disposal methods. What should they avoid?
Steam sterilization
Incineration
Microwave treatment
Autoclaving
Question 96
A broken glass slide with blood should be disposed of as:
Recyclable waste
Sharps waste (infectious)
Biodegradable
Non-hazardous
Question 97
What is a key protocol in managing anatomical waste?
Composting
Use of yellow-colored bins and incineration alternatives
Open-air drying
Microwave treatment
Question 98
During surgery, which waste needs the most urgent attention post-procedure?
Linens
Instruments
Sharps
Recyclables
Question 99
Which consequence is most likely from dumping infectious waste in regular landfills?
Faster decomposition
Cost savings
Contamination of water sources
Less segregation work
Question 100
What protocol best ensures that a waste disposal system is functioning properly?
Monthly inspection
Casual visual checks
Regular audits and staff training
Waiting for complaints