
A patient with late-stage cirrhosis develops portal hypertension. Which of the following options below are complications that can develop from this condition? Select all that apply:
Increase albumin levels
Ascites
Splenomegaly
Fluid volume deficient
Esophageal varices
A client is returned to the nursing unit after thoracic surgery with chest tubes in place. During the first few hours postoperatively, what type of drainage should the nurse expect?
Serous
Bloody
Serosanguineous
Bloody, with frequent small clots
The nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis of the liver and observes that the patient is having hand-flapping tremors. What does the nurse document this finding as?
Constructional apraxia
Fetor hepaticus
Ataxia
Asterixis
A patient with bleeding esophageal varices has had pharmacologic therapy with octreotide and endoscopic therapy with esophageal varices banding, but the patient has continued to have bleeding. What procedure that will lower portal pressure does the nurse prepare the patient for?
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting (TIPS)
Administration of vasopressin
Sclerotherapy
Balloon tamponade
While providing mouth care to a patient with late-stage cirrhosis, you note a pungent, sweet, musty smell to the breath. This is known as:
Metallic Hepatico
Fetor Hepaticus
Hepaticoacidosis
Asterixis
A client states that the physician said the tidal volume is slightly diminished and asks the nurse what this means. The nurse explains that the tidal volume is the amount of air:
Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration
Exhaled after there is a normal inspiration.
Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be exhaled.
Forcibly inspired over and above a normal respiration.
The nurse identifies which type of jaundice in an adult experiencing a transfusion reaction?
Hepatocellular
Nonobstructive
Obstructive
Hemolytic
What is included in the description of positive pressure ventilation? Select all that apply
peak inspiratory pressure predetermined
consistent volume delivered with each breath
increased risk for hyperventilation and hypoventilation
preset volume of gas delivered with variable pressure based on compliance
volume delivered varies based on selected pressure and patient lung compliance
What characteristics describe positive pressure ventilators? Select all that apply
require an artificial airway
applied to outside of body
most similar to physiologic ventilation
most frequently used with critically ill patients
frequently used in the home for neuromuscular or nervous system disorders
The nursing management of a patient with an artificial airway includes
maintaining the ET tube cuff pressure at 30 cm H20
routine suctioning of the tube at least every 2 hours
observing for cardiac dysrhythmias during suctioning
preventing tube dislodgment by limiting mouth care to lubrication of the lips
The nurse is caring for a patient who is ready to be weaned from the ventilator. In preparing to assist in the collaborative process of weaning the patient from a ventilator, the nurse is aware that the weaning of the patient will progress in what order?
Removal from the ventilator, tube, and then oxygen
Removal from oxygen, ventilator, and then tube
Removal of the tube, oxygen, and then ventilator
Removal from oxygen, tube, and then ventilator
The medical nurse is creating the care plan of an adult patient requiring mechanical ventilation. What nursing action is most appropriate?
Keep the patient in a low Fowlers position.
Perform tracheostomy care at least once per day.
Maintain continuous bedrest.
Monitor cuff pressure every 8 hours.
The nurse is caring for a client who is mechanically ventilated, and the high-pressure ventilator alarm is sounding. The nurse understands that which complications may cause this alarm? Select all that apply.
Water or a kink in the tubing
Biting on the endotracheal tube
Increased secretions in the airway
Disconnection or leak in the system
The client ceasing spontaneous breathing
Which modifiable risk factor should the nurse identify for the development of cancer of the bladder in a client?
Previous exposure to chemicals.
Pelvic radiation therapy.
Cigarette smoking.
Parasitic infections of the bladder.
A client is to undergo a TURP for BPH. Which statement is accurate with regard to a TURP?
There is no danger of retrograde ejaculation.
Urethral strictures are more frequent for TURP than for nontransurethral procedures.
A TURP causes erectile dysfunction.
It is done on an outpatient basis.
What intervention does the nurse anticipate providing for the patient with ascites that will help correct the decrease in effective arterial blood volume that leads to sodium retention?
Administration of diuretic therapy
Assisting with a therapeutic paracentesis
Infusing platelets
Infusing albumin
patient is scheduled for a diagnostic paracentesis, but when coagulation studies are reviewed, the nurse observes results outside of normal parameters. How does the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider will proceed with the paracentesis?
An ultrasound-guided paracentesis will be performed
The procedure will be canceled until the laboratory results are within normal parameters
The paracentesis will be performed at the bedside
The nurse will administer packed red blood cells (RBCs) prior to the paracentesis
While helping a patient with a chest tube reposition in the bed, the chest tube becomes dislodged. What is your immediate nursing intervention?
Stay with the patient and monitor their vital signs while another nurse notifies the physician.
Place a sterile dressing over the site and tape it on three sides and notify the physician.
Attempt to re-insert the tube.
Keep the site open to air and notify the physician.
Which client is most likely to develop prostate cancer according to a nurse working at a health screening at the local mall?
A 56-year-old African American man
A 60-year-old Asian American man
A 17-year-old European American man
A 35-year-old African American man
A nurse is working in an oncology treatment center. Which clinical manifestation when reported by a client would the nurse know may be related to metastasis from prostate cancer?
Large amounts of dilute urine when voiding
Weight gain of 3 pounds in 1 month
Frequent nighttime urination
Constant hip aching and discomfort
When bladder cancer has spread through the bladder wall into the surrounding tissues (prostate in men, uterus or vagina in women) this is classified as stage
I
II
III
IV
True or False - The Gleason Grading System in Prostate Cancer is graded from 1 (near normal) to grade 5 (absence of any glandular pattern). The higher the score the more severe the cancer
TRUE
FALSE
If patients have a high risk for prostate cancer (having a first degree relative with history of prostate cancer) their screening should be....
Every year beginning at age 55
Every year beginning at age 45
Every year beginning at age 40
Every year beginning at age 50
Which of the following are signs of prostate cancer metastasis? Select all that apply
Perineal & Rectal Discomfort
Hip Pain
Urinary Frequency, Dysuria, Retention
Anemia, Weight Loss, Weakness, & Pathologic Fractures
Cirrhosis of the liver a form of
Hemolytic Jaundice
Hepatocellular Jaundice
Obstructive Jaundice
Cholestatic Jaundice
Which type of jaundice is most common in those receiving blood transfusions
Hemolytic Jaundice
Hepatocellular Jaundice
Obstructive Jaundice
Cholestatic Jaundice
Which type of jaundice can produce mild, or severe illness such as anorexia, nausea, malaise, fatigue, weakness, and possible weight loss
Hemolytic Jaundice
Hepatocellular Jaundice
Obstructive Jaundice
Cholestatic Jaundice
A volume-cycled ventilator allowing patients to take spontaneous breaths with their tidal volume. Often used to wean patients from the ventilator. The ventilator avoids stacking breaths.
SIMV
PRESSURE-SUPPORT
ASSIST-CONTROL
PEEP
The maximum volume of air exhaled from the point of maximum inspiration.
VITAL CAPACITY
INSPIRATORY CAPACITY
FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL CAPACITY
TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY
The maximum volume of air inhaled after a normal expiration
VITAL CAPACITY
FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL CAPACITY
INSPIRATORY CAPACITY
TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration
VITAL CAPACITY
FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL CAPACITY
INSPIRATORY CAPACITY
TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY
The volume of air in the lungs after a maximum inspiration
VITAL CAPACITY
FUNCTIONAL RESIDUAL CAPACITY
INSPIRATORY CAPACITY
TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY
The volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath
EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
FORCED EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
TIDAL VOLUME
The maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation
EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
FORCED EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
RESIDUAL VOLUME
The volume of air that can be expired after a normal breath
EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
FORCED EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
RESIDUAL VOLUME
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximum exhalation
EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
FORCED EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
RESIDUAL VOLUME
The volume of air that can be expired in 1 second of max forced expiration
EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
FORCED EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME
RESIDUAL VOLUME